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CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005) — Full Question Bank

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Question 1

A company uses synchronous replication between its primary and disaster recovery datacenters.

Which risk is MOST likely introduced by this design?

Answer choices

  • A. Increased recovery times

  • B. Greater dependence on network performance and availability (Correct)

  • C. Elimination of geographic redundancy

  • D. Inability to perform backups

Explanation

Synchronous replication introduces greater dependence on network performance and availability because every write operation must complete at both sites before being acknowledged. Network latency or outages directly impact production write performance.

Synchronous replication typically reduces recovery times compared to asynchronous methods because data is already current at the recovery site, not increases them.

Synchronous replication provides geographic redundancy by maintaining an identical copy at a separate location, not eliminating it.

Backups can and should still be performed alongside synchronous replication to protect against logical data corruption and accidental deletion.

Question 2

An organization compares two clustering models. In the first, hardware sits idle during normal operations. In the second, all hardware actively handles production traffic at all times.

Which statement correctly distinguishes the two?

Answer choices

  • A. Active-passive clusters provide better hardware utilization than active-active clusters

  • B. Active-active clusters use all nodes for production workloads, while active-passive clusters keep at least one node on standby (Correct)

  • C. Active-passive clusters require switch-independent protocols, while active-active clusters do not

  • D. Heartbeat signals are only used in active-active configurations

Explanation

Active-active clusters use all nodes for production workloads simultaneously, while active-passive clusters keep at least one node on standby during normal operations.

Active-passive clusters leave standby hardware idle, resulting in lower utilization than active-active configurations where all nodes work.

Both cluster types can use various NIC teaming options; switch-independent protocols are not exclusive to either model.

Heartbeat signals are used in both active-active and active-passive clusters to monitor node availability and trigger failover.

Question 3

A RAID 5 array consists of five drives. The array management console generates a critical alert indicating degraded status. One drive is marked with a fault indicator.

Which condition does this alert most directly describe?

Answer choices

  • A. The cache battery has discharged and the array has entered safe mode

  • B. A disk in the array has failed and the array is operating without full redundancy (Correct)

  • C. A loose cable has caused one drive to drop offline intermittently

  • D. The storage driver is incompatible with one of the five drives

Explanation

A RAID 5 array with one drive marked faulty is in a degraded state, operating without full redundancy. RAID 5 tolerates only a single drive failure, so the array is vulnerable until the failed drive is replaced and rebuilt.

A discharged cache battery disables write caching but does not directly mark a drive as failed in the array. A loose cable might cause intermittent offline status but the scenario describes a confirmed fault indicator on one drive. Driver incompatibility would affect the entire controller, not a single drive among five.

Question 4

Match each technology, protocol, or control with its primary purpose.

Explanation

Full Disk Encryption encrypts all data stored on a storage device, ensuring that files remain unreadable if the drive is stolen or accessed outside the authorized system.

SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) secures file transfers between systems by encrypting data in transit over an SSH connection.

IPsec protects network-layer communications by encrypting IP packets between endpoints, commonly used for site-to-site VPN connections.

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) prevents unauthorized transmission of sensitive information by inspecting content and enforcing policies on data in motion.

Port 443 is the default port commonly associated with HTTPS, the encrypted version of HTTP used for secure web communications.

Provides hardware recovery after firmware corruption describes BIOS recovery jumper procedures, which is not matched to any item in this question.

Question 5

During a security audit, an administrator runs a tool against the network and receives a report listing every open port on each discovered host, along with the services associated with those ports.

Which tool produced this output?

Answer choices

  • A. tcpdump

  • B. NIPS

  • C. Sandbox

  • D. Port scanner (Correct)

Explanation

A port scanner probes hosts to discover which ports are open and what services are listening, producing a report of exposed services. This matches the audit output described in the scenario.

Tcpdump captures live packet data but does not systematically enumerate open ports across hosts. NIPS blocks malicious traffic inline rather than generating port inventory reports. A sandbox analyzes file behavior in isolation, not network port exposure.