CompTIA Security+ Full Exam Simulator
By Yoshi · Updated Jun 9, 2026
| Certification | Security+ (SY0-701) |
| Questions | 603 |
| Passing Score | 80% |
| Format | 95% Multiple Choice |
| Sessions Logged | 3,253 |
| Your progress | Log in / Register to track times taken, best score, questions mastered, and coverage on this quiz. |
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Certification Summary
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 is the standard hurdle for systems administrators and junior security analysts tasked with maintaining basic infrastructure defenses. People sit this exam because their leads view it as a prerequisite for getting access to production environments, often using it to satisfy a checkbox for compliance audits or government contracts.
The exam leans on scenario based questions that force you to prioritize mitigation steps during a simulated breach. Security Operations at 28 percent, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations at 22 percent, and Security Program Management and Oversight at 20 percent carry the weight of the assessment. You will also see questions on Security Architecture and General Security Concepts that require you to identify specific cryptographic implementations and the standard access control models defined in the CompTIA framework.
Topics covered
Security Program Management and Oversight133 questions
- Explain the processes associated with third-party risk assessment and management.26 q
- Given a scenario, implement security awareness practices.26 q
- Summarize elements of effective security governance.20 q
- Explain types and purposes of audits and assessments.21 q
- Explain elements of the risk management process.20 q
- Summarize elements of effective security compliance.20 q
General Security Concepts91 questions
- Compare and contrast various types of security controls.20 q
- Summarize fundamental security concepts.21 q
- Explain the importance of using appropriate cryptographic solutions.30 q
- Explain the importance of change management processes and the impact to security.20 q
Security Operations188 questions
- Explain security alerting and monitoring concepts and tools.21 q
- Given a scenario, modify enterprise capabilities to enhance security.21 q
- Explain appropriate incident response activities.21 q
- Given a scenario, implement and maintain identity and access management.30 q
- Explain the importance of automation and orchestration related to secure operations.20 q
- Explain various activities associated with vulnerability management.20 q
- Explain the security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management.15 q
- Given a scenario, use data sources to support an investigation.20 q
- Given a scenario, apply common security techniques to computing resources.20 q
Security Architecture93 questions
- Compare and contrast security implications of different architecture models.25 q
- Explain the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.15 q
- Given a scenario, apply security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure.23 q
- Compare and contrast concepts and strategies to protect data.30 q
Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations98 questions
- Given a scenario, analyze indicators of malicious activity.20 q
- Explain the purpose of mitigation techniques used to secure the enterprise.22 q
- Explain various types of vulnerabilities.20 q
- Compare and contrast common threat actors and motivations.15 q
- Explain common threat vectors and attack surfaces.21 q
Question catalog for this preview
Catalog listing of the 5 preview questions for this quiz.
Question 1
Before authorizing a third-party security assessment, an organization specifies testable systems, permitted methods, and authorized testing hours.
What is this document called?
Explanation
Rules of engagement define the boundaries, authorized methods, and constraints governing how a third-party assessment may be conducted.
Business impact analysis evaluates operational consequences of disruptions, not assessment authorization terms.
A service level agreement defines uptime and response expectations between parties, not security testing constraints.
A risk register tracks identified risks and treatments, not pre-assessment authorization parameters.
Question 2
An employee uses a company laptop for a personal side business, non-work cloud services, and unlicensed software. HR references a signed onboarding document when initiating discipline.
Which document is HR most likely referencing?
Explanation
An acceptable use policy defines permitted and prohibited uses of company technology, providing the basis for disciplinary action.
A disaster recovery plan addresses system restoration after failures, not personal misuse of equipment.
A data retention policy governs how long data is kept, not personal business use of corporate assets.
A change management log tracks production modifications, not employee technology misuse.
Question 3
Why is physical destruction often recommended when disposing of SSDs containing highly sensitive information?
Explanation
SSD wear-leveling distributes write operations across memory cells, making it difficult to ensure all copies of data are overwritten through software sanitization alone.
SSDs can be reformatted, but software-based methods may not reliably erase all data due to wear-leveling and over-provisioning.
SSDs support encryption, but encryption alone does not guarantee data destruction when media is disposed without proper key destruction.
SSDs do not automatically replicate data externally; the concern is internal data remanence from wear-leveling algorithms.
Question 4
A stolen laptop's confidential files remain inaccessible because the drive requires cryptographic authentication before startup.
Which technology provided this protection?
Explanation
Full disk encryption requires authentication to decrypt the entire drive, protecting data at rest on a stolen device.
Tokenization protects specific data fields in applications, not an entire laptop drive.
HTTPS encrypts web sessions in transit, not local stored files on a powered-off laptop.
SSH secures remote administration sessions, not data at rest on a local disk.
Question 5
A developer pushes an untested configuration update directly to a production database, causing a four-hour outage.
Which governance process failure does this represent?
Explanation
Change management requires review, testing, and approval before production modifications; bypassing this process caused the outage.
Disaster recovery addresses restoration after failures but the root failure here is uncontrolled change deployment.
Data owner noncompliance involves governance accountability for data, not unauthorized production changes.
An acceptable use policy violation may also apply but the primary governance failure is missing change control.